David Elsberg, a member of Miller & Wrubel, asks: If a contract has no arbitration clause, but refers to a separate document that does include such a clause, may one party compel the other to arbitrate? The answer depends on which legal standard should be applied, and a diligent litigant will gain an advantage by selecting the forum.
January 06, 2006 at 12:00 AM
1 minute read
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